Why does manager become menedzer in Polish

I would like someone to explain to me the reason why the English word "manager" is written "menedzer" by Poles.After all the Polish written form does not correspond at all to the English pronunciation.

This phenomenon (the wrong transcription of English words in Polish) often occurs .I wonder who started allowing it!

Needless to say I could make so many other similar examples.

How would you prefer it to be written?

There seems to be a serious misunderstanding here:

> why the English word "manager" is written "menedzer" by Poles

Well, it isn't. The _English_ word 'manager' is written 'manager' by everyone,
and what is written 'menedżer' is a _Polish_ word.

> the Polish written form does not correspond at all to the English pronunciation

No, it doesn't. But why should it? And how could it, if most sounds appearing in the English pronunciation of 'manager' do not exist in Polish?
'Menedżer' corresponds to the Polish pronunciation, of course.

> This phenomenon (the wrong transcription of English words in Polish) often occurs.

1. Read the thread www.ang.pl/8643
2. Define 'wrong' afterwards.

I would prefer it to be written manager and pronounced according the English phonetic transcription.
This is an old question about the use of Anglicisms in Poland.

Vindex, I just mean that in the majority of cases the written and oral form of English words is often incorrect because the way how Poles pronounce most anglicisms is far from reality.

I don't mean that we Italians are cleverer.I dare say we are worse.Just think, for an example, of the words "management" or "bowling" which are mispronounced on tv , radio and everywhere in a thousand different ways in my country.

We use different letters or combinations of letters to represent certain sounds than some other languages do. For example the closest equivalent of the sound you find in the middle of 'angel' is spelt 'dż' in Polish. I guess that in Italian the spelling is basically the same as in English. Is that right?
As words are borrowed by languages, they undergo some modifications, beginning with their pronunciation and spelling, which normally reflects the pronunciation according to the spelling rules of that particular language, inflection (if inflection occurs in the accepting language), and meaning.
Coming back to your example, a word spelt 'manager' in Polish would normally be pronounced /manager/, because the letter 'g' is always pronounced /g/ in Polish words. Would that be better?

>for an example, of the words "management" or
>"bowling"

End: "Colgate"... wrrr.

/kolgate/?

>/kolgate/?

Yes.

mg, your explanations haven't convinced me at all.You see, the English word "pubs" is spelt "puby" in Polish, as you know and pronounced in the same way as it is spelt.Let me say it makes me smile a bit whenever I hear it around Poland or when my Polish wife uses "puby".
I wonder why such foreign linguistic borrows undergo such a change.In my opinion ,they should be pronounced correctly in the same way as they are in their originary language.If I Italian attempted to pronounce pubs as you poles do , no one in Italy would understand me , even they would think I don't know English or more simply would get to make a laugh.I must confess you that when I speak Polish In Poland, I feel rather puzzled by this phenomenon.

>mg, your explanations haven't convinced me at all.You see, the English word "pubs" is spelt "puby" in Polish, as you know and pronounced in the same way as it is spelt.Let me say it makes me smile a bit whenever I hear it around Poland or when my Polish wife uses "puby".

As you may know, '-y' is a plural ending for nouns in Polish, a suitable one for a noun like 'pub'. Why should it not be used? Doesn't 'pub' take any endings in Italian? How is it pronounced? The Polish word is mostly pronounced with an /a/ sound, like the English original.

>I wonder why such foreign linguistic borrows undergo such a change.

Mostborrowed words undergo changes because the people speaking 'their' new language adjust them to the rules of the new language. How do you italians pronounce Wałęsa, Wojtyła or Boniek?

>In my opinion ,they should be pronounced correctly in the same way as they are in their originary language.<
That would hardly be possible. Let's take you example of 'pub'
In Polish a vowel like /p/ is never aspirated before a stressed vowel, whereas in English it is the rule. Polish doesn't have a sound like the 'u' and the 'b' at the end of a word immediately becomes /p/, while in English it is not quite so.

Do you have the same reaction when you hear "tekila", "feng szui", "szapo ba", "erzac", or ist only about English?

>How do you Italians pronounce Wałęsa, Wojtyła or Boniek?

Most Italians pronounce them in the same way as you do, but I can assure you some tv news readers in Italy and common people still say :Walesa, Woitila , despite their long huge popularity.

Just think that the word bowling is constantly mispronounced "buling" all over Italy both by learned people and the scarcely educated ones.Most people do so because they hear so and also because in other cases they don't want to look different.Few have ever realized whether the word is to be pronounced buling or boulin'.
Still worse if the bad example comes from Italian politicians who often appear on the telly.

And how are Italian words pronounced in English? Do you hear three/a/ sounds in "those paparazzi'? And French words?

>This phenomenon (the wrong transcription of English words in Polish)
>often occurs .I wonder who started allowing it!

but what's so strange about it?
Let's take ANY two languages and it will always be true.